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An engineer is asked to troubleshoot packet drops inside a network which option is true? A. HTTP traffic originated by the 10.10.10.0/24 subnet uses up to 10% of the interface bandwidth. However, if no congestion is present, no more bandwidth is allocated to HTTP traffic B. SMTP traffic originated by the 10.10.10.0/24 subnet uses up to 10% of the bandwidth, however, if no congestion is present, more bandwidth is allocated to SMTP traffic C. SMTP traffic originated by the 10.10.10.0/24 subnet uses up to 10% of the bandwidth. However, if no congestion is present, SMTP traffic above 10% of link bandwidth is dropped D. HTTP traffic originated by the 10.10.10.0/24 subnet uses up to 10% of the interface bandwidth. However, if congestion is present, less bandwidth is allocated to HTTP traffic Answer: C
Which Inter-AS option allows a sendee provider to provision AToM along with L3VPN provisioning? A.MPLS VPN Inter-AS with ASBRs exchanging VPN-IPv4 addresses B.MPLS VPN Inter-AS with ASBRs exchanging IPv4 routes and MPLS labels C.MPLS VPN Inter-AS Option AB D.back-to-back VRFs Answer: B
Which are the two advantages if an ISP chooses a platform that runs Cisco IOS-XR Software instead of Cisco IOS Software? (Choose two.) A.Cisco IOS XR Software functions as a message-passing operating system. B.The system's scheduler is priority-based. C.The context switching is based on Cisco Express Forwarding. D.VoIP traffic is hardware-processed for real-time response. E.Communication between client and server is realized by a dedicated mechanism. Answer: AB
A service provider is using multicast flows to provide streaming video content to its customers. Video streams are sometimes interrupted, and network instability is determined to be the cause. Which action should the service provider take to decrease the burden on the router resources in an unstable unicast routing environment? A. increase the PIM hello hold timers B. reduce the volume of query messages C. filter unnecessary SA messages D. tune the RPF backoff Answer: D
Which three OSPF pieces of information must between routers in order to establish an ospf neighborship? (Choose three) A. Area ID B. Hello interval and dead interval timer value C. LSA refresh period timer value D. Priority value E. Stub flag F. Process ID Answer: A, B, E
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Share some CCIE Data Center 400-151 exam questions and answers below. Which two Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders support FCoE? (Choose two.) A. 2248TP B. 2232ET-P C. 2224TP D.2232PP E. 2232TM-E Answer: D, E
Which option is an advantage of Cisco ACE virtual IP address tracking? A. Troubleshooting is possible between multiple routing domains and multiple service devices. B. Tracking is limited to a maximum of 500 tracked instances. C. New virtual IP address implementation has multiple network touchpoints. D. It can be used during application migration in which virtual IP addresses cannot be changed. Answer: D
Which option lists valid network interfaces for VSM? A. Layer 2, Layer 3, and keepalive B. control, management, and packet C. management, Layer 2, and Layer 3 D. management, packet, and VSM Answer: B
Which two security features are supported by IMX-API? (Choose two.) A. All communication the device is encrypted when you use VPN. B. All communication to the device is encrypted when you use HTIPS. C. NX-API support certificate-based authentication. D. Users must have appropriate accounts to access the device through NX-API. Answer: BD
Which three options are benefits of the VPC peers switch feature?(Choose 3) A. It eliminates the recommendation to pin the STP root to the Vpc primary switch B. It allows a pair of the vPC peer devices to appear as a single STP root in the layer 2 C. After the peer link comes up, it performs an ARP bulk sync over CFSoE to the peer switch D. It improves convergences for layer 3 flows E. It simplifies STP configuration by configuration both Vpcs with the same STP priority Answer: ABE
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Drag and drop BGP attribute on the left to the correct category on the right. Not all options will be used.
Answer:
Which utility can you use to identify the cause of a traffic -flow blockage between two devices in a network? A. iWan application B. ACL analysis tool in APIC-EM C. ACL path analysis tool in APIC-EM D. APIC-EM automation scheduler Answer: C
Refer to the Exhibit.
Which tag is applied to route 10.10.50.0/24? A. 30 B. 20 C. 10 D. 40 Answer: D
Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding are true? A. The FIB table resides on the route processor and the adjacency table resides on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled. B. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled. C. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the adjacency table. D. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the FIB table Answer: C
Drag each OSPFv2 SA parameter on the left to its corresponding description on the right?
Answer:
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A cisco collaboration engineer is troubleshooting a gateway and gatekeeper problem and sees this output from a debug command. Which two configuration can cause this problem? (Choose two) A. The same zone prefix is configured in two different gatekeepers B. The same H323-ID is configured in two different gateways C. The same gw-type-prefix is configured in two different zone subnets IDs D. The same zone subnet ID is configured in two different gatekeepers E. The same E164-ID is configured in two different gateways Answer: BE
DRAG DROP An engineer is setting up a proxy TFTP between multiple Cisco communication Manager clusters. Drag the step from the left to the correct order on the right to properly configure the certificates for the proxy TFTP. Not all options will be used.
Answer:
What is the maximum number of option 150 IP addresses that a Cisco IP SCCP phone will accept and use from a DHCP server? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 Answer: B
What is the maximum number of option 66 IP addresses that a Cisco IP SCCP phone will accept and use from a DHCP server? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 Answer: B
Which two guidelines are recommended when configuring agent phones for Cisco Unified CCX agents? (Choose two.) A. In the Multiple Call/Call Waiting Settings section, set the Maximum Number of Calls to 2. B. In the Multiple Call/Call Waiting Settings section, set the Busy Trigger value to 2. C. The Unified CCX extension for the agent must be listed within the top four extensions on the device profile. D. In the Multiple Call/Call Waiting Settings section, set the Maximum Number of Calls to at least 3. E. Always enable SRTP when configuring an agent phone. Answer: A,C
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In Huawei WLAN network program, the 5W controlled by fine strategy, what kind of control does What refer to? A. Permission control based on user role B. Time-based access control C. Location-based access control D. Policy control based on terminal type Answer: D
Which of the following statements on the indoor distribution devices are right? (Multiple choice) A. combiner can compound multiplexed input signal to one way to output, reverse filter and separate the mixed signal B. One signal can be divided into multi-channel signal by Power splitter to output C. The coupler is a power divider with unequal output power that removes the desired signal energy from the mainline to the remote antenna and allocates more signal energy to the proximal antenna D. WLAN indoor distribution network generally use microstrip power splitter, relative to the cavity power splitter, power is low, and cost is low. Answer: ABD
About the description of the AP9330DN feeder, which of the following statement is wrong? (Multiple choice) A. The same length of the feeder, 5GHz attenuation value is less than 2.4GHz attenuation value. B. With the same AP9330DN, all feeders must be kept equal. C. Feeder is divided into four kinds of specifications, cannot be made on-site. D. The same length of the feeder, 5GHz attenuation value is greater than 2.4GHz attenuation value. Answer: AB
Which of the following is typical WLAN high-density access scenario? A. Wireless cash register B. Mobile ward-round C. stadiums D. asset location Answer: C
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Share some CCNP Wireless 300-375 exam questions and answers below. A network engineer is implementing a wireless network and is considering deploying a single SSID for device onboarding. Winch option is a benefit of using dual SSIDs with a captive portal on the onboard SSID compared to a single SSID solution? A. limit of a single device per user B. restrict allowed devices types C. allow multiple devices per user D. minimize client configuration errors Answer: B
Which mobility mode must a Cisco 5508 wireless Controller be in to use the MA functionality on a cisco catalyst 3850 series switch with a cisco 550 Wireless Controller as an MC? A. classic mobility B. new mobility C. converged access mobility D. auto-anchor mobility Answer: C
Access points at branch sites for a company are in FlexConncct mode and perform local switching, but they authenticate to the central RADIUS at headquarters. VPN connections to the headquarters have gone down, but each branch site has a local authentication server. Which three features on the wireless controller can be configured to maintain network operations if this situation reoccurs? (Choose three.) A. Put APs in FlexConnect Group for Remote Branches. B. Set Branch RADIUS as Primary. C. Put APs in AP Group Per Branch. D. Put APs in FlexConnect Group Per Branch. E. Set Branch RADIUS OS Secondary. F. Set HQ RADIUS a-s primary. Answer: A,E,F
When you configure BYOD access to the network, you face increased security risks and challenges. Which challenge is resolved by deploying digital client certificates? A. managing the increase connected devices B. ensuring wireless LAN performance and reliability C. providing device choice and support D. enforcing company usage policies Answer: D
MFP is enabled globally on a WLAN with default settings on single controller wireless network. Older client devices are disconnected from the network during a deauthentication attack. What is the cause of this issue? A. The client devices do not support WPA. B. The client devices do not support CCXv5. C. The MFP on the WLAN is set to optional D. The NTP server is not configured on the controller. Answer: C
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Share some CCNP Wireless 300-370 exam questions and answers below. While reviewing CleanAir data in Cisco Prime Infrastructure, an engineer notices that a wideband jammer is not sending its Interferer Security Trap correctly. The engineer determines that the default seventy level has been changed. Which value does the engineer select to reset the seventy level to its factory setting? A.informational B.major C.minor D.warning E.critical Answer: D
An engineer has configured 802 1x for the network and all but one of the APs are passing authentication. Which configuration is causing the failure? A.The AP has override global credentials checked. B.The switch AAA credentials do not match what is configured on ISE. C.The controller 802 1x supplicant credentials do not match what is configured on ISE D.EAP-FAST is configured on ISE for this AP. Answer: A
You have successfully configured HA and SSO using two Cisco 5508 Wireless LAN Controllers. You are able to access the Active Primary WLC but are unable to access the Secondary Standby WLC. Which two methods will allow you to access the standby unit? (Choose two.) A.Via SSH to the Redundancy Management Interface. B.Via Service Port Interface. C.Via SSH to the Management Interface. D.Via console connection. Answer: CD
A wireless user is experiencing connectivity issues with their Mac OS laptop. If the Mac is exhibiting the behavior of a "sticky client," how can the tech verity which AP the user is currently connected to? A.Hold shift while clicking the wireless icon. B.Hold option while clicking the wireless icon. C.Hold control while clicking the wireless icon. D.Hold command while clicking the wireless icon. Answer: B
Which Cisco WLC debug command allows you to determine if the certificate process is failing in the CAPWAP messages? A.debug pm pki enable B.debug cert events enable C.debug capwap events enable D.debug capwap packet enable E.debug capwap errors enable Answer: E
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